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NEW QUESTION: 1
An organization (Account ID 123412341234) has attached the below mentioned IAM policy to a user. What does this policy statement entitle the user to perform?

A. The policy allows the user to modify all IAM user's password, sign in certificates and access keys using only CLI, SDK or APIs
B. The policy allows the IAM user to modify all credentials using only the console
C. The policy allows the IAM user to modify all IAM user's credentials using the console, SDK, CLI or APIs
D. The policy will give an invalid resource error
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
WS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage users and user permissions for various AWS services. If the organization (Account ID 123412341234) wants some of their users to manage credentials (access keys, password, and sing in certificates. of all IAM users, they should set an applicable policy to that user or group of users. The below mentioned policy allows the IAM user to modify the credentials of all IAM user's using only CLI, SDK or APIs. The user cannot use the AWS console for this activity since he does not have list permission for the IAM users.

NEW QUESTION: 2
A customer has licenses for 50 agents in their Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Multichannel application. At a particular time, 30 agents are logged in.
When the next (31st) agent logs into a Multichannel Agent Desktop, what can occur?
A. The application displays an error message because the number of licensed agents has exceeded the maximum number allowed.
B. The application displays no error message because the maximum number of licensed concurrent agents is not reached.
C. The application displays an error message because the number of licensed agents is not the same as the number that are logged in.
D. The application displays an error message because the new agent is not known is the system.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the downward bit?
A. It informs the PE router that the LSA was already redistributed into BGP by another PE router and that the LSA must not be redistributed into BGP again.
B. It informs the PE router that the LSA metric has been recently decreased to 1 and that partial SPF calculation cannot be delayed.
C. It forces the CE router to install the LSA with the downward bit set into its routing table as a discard route.
D. It forces the CE router to use a backup link instead of sending traffic via MPLS VPN.
Answer: A
Explanation:
From RFC 4577, specifically section 4.2.5.1 When a type 3 LSA is sent from a PE router to a CE router, the DN bit [OSPF-DN] in the LSA Options field MUST be set. This is used to ensure that if any CE router sends this type 3 LSA to a PE router, the PE router will not redistribute it further. When a PE router needs to distribute to a CE router a route that comes from a site outside the latter's OSPF domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR (Autonomous System Border Router), and distributes the route in a type 5 LSA. The DN bit [OSPF-DN] MUST be set in these LSAs to ensure that they will be ignored by any other PE routers that receive them.

NEW QUESTION: 4
Changes in which of the following do not affect the expected default frequencies (EDF) under the KMV Moody's approach to credit risk?
A. Changes in the firm's market capitalization
B. Changes in the risk free rate
C. Changes in the debt level
D. Changes in asset volatility
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
EDFs are derived from the distance to default. The distance to default is the number of standard deviations that expected asset values are away from the default point, which itself is defined as short term debt plus half of the long term debt. Therefore debt levels affect the EDF. Similarly, asset values are estimated using equity prices.
Therefore market capitalization affects EDF calculations. Asset volatilities are the standard deviation that form a place in the denominator in the distance to default calculations. Therefore asset volatility affects EDF too.
The risk free rate is not directly factored in any of these calculations (except of course, one could argue that the level of interest rates may impact equity values or the discounted values of future cash flows, but that is a second order effect). Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.